Why can't I say nobody instead of no one?

You can. Either "no one" or "nobody" is grammatically correct.

Both are correct. This is something you should have gotten credit for.

Both no one and nobody sound right to me. I think you could also use none

Both are correct. “Play games with friends, you say? Well, nobody is online right now.” “Play games with friends, you say? Well, no one is online right now.”

Honestly the biggest problem I have is with the **I've invited** because it's such a strange way to phrase it. Does the tense even match the end of the sentence? I don't think so. If it was **I invited** or **I had invited** that would be better.

You can say nobody, but you can also say none. Just don’t say neither, and it’s correct.

Thanks you all guys

I think the person writing the question might think that since the sentence specifies “twelve” it should be “no one?” Maybe it’s a typo and it was supposed to be “not one?” Doesn’t matter though. They all mean the same thing.

Both are correct, in fact the question itself is ungrammatical in my opinion. "I've \[I have\] invited twelve guests" is something you only say when you've sent out the invitations but the event itself hasn't happened yet. Otherwise you'd say "I invited twelve guests" or "I had invited twelve guests". But if the party hasn't happened yet, how do you know that no one came on time? It doesn't make any sense.

The statement has another error - if no one came on time, then the party was in the past. So saying "I've invited" (present perfect) isn't natural here. It should be "I invited" (past simple).

It's not. In fact, "none" is also correct. Additionally, "I've" might not be TECHNICALLY wrong, but it sounds super weird. This whole question is fucked from top to bottom.

The only thing on the list that would NOT be 100% fine would be "neither." All three of the other options work fine.

any of the first three work, none is less usual then the other two though.

3/4 of these answers are fine. Only neither doesn't work.

Am I the only one bothered by the "i've invited" instead of "i invited"? It just sounds off

Feels like the question is "Which one doesn't fit?".

Nobody, none, and no one all fit. I'd hear all three on any given day just wandering round town.

Maybe they asked you to choose the *incorrect* answer. Which would be "neither"

This is probably going to upset you, but it's most likely because "no one" is considered formal speech, while nobody and none are considered casual speech. Written English tends to use formal writing. I try to spread this around when I can, but there IS a difference in English between spoken grammar and written grammar, due to a lengthy history of elitism and servitude, so our written grammar actually reflects more grammatical nuances of romance languages (French and Latin specifically), in that romance languages have formal conjugations that are used regularly while English did NOT, however due to French/Latin being the "language of the elite" centuries ago, our english speaking ancestors changed a LOT of our natural speaking rules to match the grammar of these languages to sound "intelligent" (and be taken more seriously) when they exchanged letters and wrote documents. For example, two common rules are: - Don't end a sentence with a preposition (with, by, on, etc). In spoken English we do this all the time, but it is considered " ungrammatical" in written English. - Never start a sentence with a conjunction (but, because, and, etc). Again, very commonly done in spoken English, but will have the grammar nazis foaming at the mouth in written English. So while you are correct, because this is in writing, you're no longer correct. ((Fun fact, this is also why our some of our spelling (specifically British English) is so confusing, our words were meant to reflect French spelling, which is notorious for being unnecessarily superfluous).

no one=none of the 12guests

no one stress the one(people) nobody stress no (people)

I would say nobody. But no one is correct too. None would also be acceptable, although none of them would be better.

The first three options are all grammatically valid.

The first 3 options are all correct. It probably depends on dialects, but I've definitely heard all of them being used in this context before

but nobody came...

'No one' feels more natural to me, but 'nobody' isn't wrong

You very much can, that would be my preference! “None” would also be acceptable but less common. The only option here that is fully incorrect is “neither”.

No one is formal. Nobody is just less formal.

Why doesn’t this sub has an english flag

Everything but "neither" would be acceptable for a native speaker, and none of them would sound any less natural and correct than the rest

No one and nobody are interchangeable. If you can say no one, you can say nobody and vice versa.

Both nobody and no one are grammatically correct in general contexts, but Nobody is more informal and vague in this case

No one is more accurate with the number mentioned 12

That question has 3 correct answers, "but nobody came on time." sounds fine "but no one came on time." also sounds fine "but none came on time." also sounds fine really the only one that's truly incorrect is the last one this is just yet another example of ESL teachers thinking there's some official "correct" way to do every sentence in english

The one who made this must have had their brains gonked out.

You can. I would say "nobody," though they all work for me except for "neither" since that means 2 people.

in my opinion, all of them work besides "neither".

I’m fixated on the “I’ve.” I feel like it should be “I’d (I had)” because the part about people not showing up is in the past, and the invitation is before that.

The question sentence itself is incorrect. It should be "I invited," not "I've invited." Nobody and no one are interchangeable. The other two answers don't work in this context.

Both work perfectly fine.

I agree with the others that say both are correct. *Neither* is the only answer of these four that wouldn't work. https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/no_one > Used in contrast to anyone, someone or everyone: not one person; nobody. Synonyms: nobody, none

But nobody came.

The only grammatically incorrect answer is "neither".

That sentence is grammatically wrong, **I have** should be **I had** so your teacher may be needing help.

All are correct except for "neither".

Both correct. If I had to find somethint, just by judging by the contracted use of I've instead of 'I have', it's a more informal sentence. 'Nobody' is more informal. However, that is very harsh they can't give you both.

I'm sure the English books/schools use these type of questions in order to give the sensation that you need to study more and buy more books/ courses/ classes, and so on

All the first three are correct.

"Neither" would be wrong. It only works if there are two things. Of the remaining answers, "none" sounds awkward but is probably grammatically correct. Nobody, or no one, are correct and either one will sound OK to a native speaker.

You can say nobody, absolutely

as a native english speaker ¯\\_(ツ)_/¯ I’m not aware of any grammatical error with either and a native speaker wouldn’t notice or care

That's how I see it: when you use "nobody" you focus on the situation in general but when you say "no one" you focus on the actions of each of your guests (everyone was late). It's the same thing, just looking at the situation from different angles.

Additionally, you’d usually say “I invited” not “I’ve.”

They are just getting you ready for AI without bodies hehe

I'm confused. Isn't the last part of the sentence in the past tense? shouldn't it be "I'd invited" instead of I've? Or just I invited?

I feel this one, it’s the difference between the English we use, and the English we’re supposed to use, according to some random old rules no-one pays attention to any more. So, ‘no-one’ is the ‘correct’ answer because, of the people you invited, ‘no one of them’ turned up. It’s defining the list of people who didn’t show up within the limit of the list of people who should have shown up. ‘Nobody’ also means no-one but not of the limited set, more akin to ‘no person’. ‘Nobody came to my party’ is fine if you haven’t just defined the set of people who *should* have come. ‘Nobody does it like that’ is fine, but ‘out of all the students mentioned, nobody did it like that’ is not quite correct - you would use ‘no-one’ here. ‘None’ on its own is also not technically correct as none is generally for objects so if applying to people it would be used as ‘none of them’ where it would be fine. Note that ‘of the people I invited, none showed up’ would be ok because ‘the people’ are objects (not in the object/subject sense) in this sentence. ‘Neither’ is wrong for obvious (I hope) reasons. That being said, I’ve heard the first two regularly, and the third occasionally, and they are always understood. This isn’t what the question is about though :)

the first three options all work perfectly.

Often in multiple choice questions the other choices aren't necessarily 'wrong', but there will be a 'most correct' answer. Having these kind of choices in multiple choice is good because it makes you think about the answer, instead of just picking the obvious choice. 'No one' is the most formal English of the choices, if that is what they are testing on.

Either “nobody” or “no one” would be correct here. They’re interchangeable.

I think this question asks you to choose the wrong option since not just nobody and no one, none is also a valid answer

"Nobody", "no one", and "none" all make sense here (though the last I suppose has a different meaning compared to the other two). What confuses me is the sentence itself -- the use of the present perfect for "I have invited" but the simple past for "came" makes it seem at least as I read it as if the latter occurred before the former where it should really be the other way around!

I found this explanation which I disagree with (as a native English speaker). https://www.grammar.com/no_one_vs._nobody If you don't want to read it, it basically says that no one refers to a group of people, and nobody refers to a single person. Again, I've never heard this. This sounds almost more like a style guide than actual day-to-day grammar advice.

You can, both are correct. Actually the only incorrect option here is "neither", as "none" is also fine here.

The only wrong answer among the four choices is "neither".

I guess just in case someone thinks Odysseus didn't show up to your birthday party? The first three are all valid, the only invalid one is neither. "I've" makes the sentence feel like it's something you're saying to refer to something happening right at that moment, but the second half of the sentence implies past tense. I'm not sure whoever made this test is especially good with English to begin with.

My intuition tells me that “nobody came on time” is slightly unnatural but “nobody came” would be fine. But I can’t explain this intuition I’m afraid